Biol. 207 Sample Final Exam Questions

  1. A tall parent and a short parent produce intermediate F1 offspring that, when self-fertilized, produce a range of offspring heights, some taller than the tall P1 and some shorter than the short P1. Which set of parental genotypes could account for these data?

    A. AABBCC x aabbcc B. AABB x aabb
    C. AABBcc x aabbCC D. AA x aa E. AA x bb

  2. Which of the following is a characteristic of a recessive human disease?

    A. If both parents are affected, all of the offspring will have the disease.
    B. If one parent is affected, half of the offspring will have the disease.
    C. Two unaffected parents can have affected offspring.
    D. If one parent is affected, all of the offspring will have the disease.
    E. none of these

  3. In an individual heterozygous for a reciprocal translocation

    A. pseudodominance occurs B. crossovers are suppressed.
    C. semisterility occurs. D. dicentric chromosomes occur.
    E. none of these choices

  4. In humans, type AB blood is an example of

    A. pleiotropy. B. codominance. C. incomplete dominance.
    D. incomplete penetrance. E. None of these choices

  5. Epistasis is different from multiple alleles at a loci, in that epistasis

    A. shows a 9:3:3:1 ratio in progeny of a dihybrid cross.
    B. is characterized by heterozygosity at two or more loci.
    C. is the phenotypic result of having different alleles at one locus.
    D. results when two or more genes interact to determine a phenotype.
    E. None of these choices

  6. What is the sex of a human individual with the XXX karyotype?

    A. male B. female C. metamale D. supermale E. intersex

  7. If an individual was producing gametes with a dicentric chromosome you would suspect

    A. a deletion. B. a duplication. C. an inversion.
    D. a translocation E. a trisomic chromosome

  8. In a particular cross, two pigmented guinea pigs produce offspring in a ratio of 13 pigmented to three white. Which genotype could have a white phenotype?

    A. AABB B. Aabb C. AaBb D. AaBB E. aabb

  9. The end result of meiosis is the

    A. separation of homologous chromosomes into 2 daughter cells.
    B. formation of 2 daughter cells, each containing the diploid chromosome number.
    C. separation of the duplicated chromosomes into 4 daughter cells.
    D. formation of 4 daughter cells, each containing the haploid chromosome number.
    E. None of these choices

  10. Two genes will not exhibit linkage in genetic crosses if

    A. they are near each other on the same chromosome.
    B. the rate of recombination between them is less than 0.5.
    C. they are on different chromosomes.
    D. All of these choices are true. E. None of these choices

  11. Assuming complete dominance, what is the phenotypic ratio of the offspring of the cross AaBb x aabb?

    A. 1:1 B. 3:1 C. 1:1:1:1 D. 9:3:3:1 E. 1:2:1

  12. The phenomena where not all individuals with the genotype show the phenotype to the same degree is referred to as

    A. expressivity. B. dominance. C. penetrance. D. epistasis.
    E. None of these choices

  13. Human twin studies may be done to eliminate

    A. environmental variance. B. additive genetic variance.
    C. dominance variance. D. epistatic variance. E. total genetic variance.

  14. How many different kinds of gametes can be produced by an individual with the genotype AABbCCddEeFf?

    A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 64

  15. In wheat, seed color is a polygenic trait (additive model). If true-breeding red and white varieties are crossed, the F1 are intermediate in color. If the F1 are self-fertilized, about 1 in 256 have white seeds. How many loci are segregating color alleles?

    A. one B. two C. three D. four E. greater than four

  16. Interference between recombinational events results in

    A. a decrease in the number of crossovers occurring between genes on different chromosomes.
    B. a decrease in the frequency of double crossovers occurring between linked genes.
    C. an increase in the frequency of crossovers between linked genes.
    D. an increase in the frequency of double crossovers occurring between genes on different chromosomes. E. None of these choices

  17. Human chromosome mapping by somatic cell hybridization exploits the fact that in fusion's between mouse and human cells

    A. genes found on the mouse chromosomes are not expressed.
    B. human genes are not expressed.
    C. the nuclei of the fused cells remain separate
    D. all but a few human chromosomes are lost from the hybrid cells.
    E. None of these choices are true

  18. Bacterial cells that can transfer chromosomal genes during conjugation are

    A. Hfr. B. F+. C. F-.
    D. All of these choices are true. E. None of these choices are true

  19. Sexduction involves transfer of genetic material between bacteria by way of

    A. a phage. B. an Hfr donor strain. C. an F+ donor strain.
    D. an F' donor strain. E. all of these choices

  20. The factor that converts an F- cell to an F+ cell is a(n)

    A. phage. B. plasmid. C. transposon. D. intron. E. virus

  21. Hfr bacterial strains

    A. transfer host chromosomal genes at a high frequency.
    B. transfer fertility to other bacteria at a high rate
    C. are converted to F- when an F plasmid inserts in the host genome.
    D. cannot conjugate with other strains.
    E. are used to produce merodiploid strains of E. coli

  22. Three genotypes occur in the following numbers: AA = 25, Aa = 20, aa = 55. Therefore, p = f(A) is

    A. 0.25. B. 0.35. C. 0.45. D. 0.50. E. 0.55.

  23. In a population in Hardy-Weinberg proportions, if p = f(A1) and z = f(A26), the proportion of A1/A26 genotypes is

    A. pz. B. 2pz. C. p2. D. z2. E. p2 + z2.

  24. In a large population, if the initial frequencies of two alleles at a locus are 0.2 and 0.8, respectively, after 10 generations the frequency of heterozygotes will be

    A. 0.16 B. 0.20 C. 0.32 D. 0.50 E. 0.80

  25. The transforming substance of Streptococcus pneumoniae was shown by Avery et al. to be

    A. protein. B. carbohydrate. C. lipid. D. DNA. E. RNA.

  26. Experiments performed by Hershey and Chase determined the true nature of genetic material by using bacteriophage T2 and showing that

    A. radioactive DNA entered the bacterial cells.
    B. radioactive protein entered the bacterial cells.
    C. radioactive DNA did not enter the cells and could be detected in the supernatant left in the blender
    D. DNA and protein both incorporated radioactivity and entered the cells.
    E. none of these choices are true

  27. Antiparallel means that

    A. DNA strands run in opposite directions.
    B. DNA strands are not straight.
    C. DNA strands are not parallel.
    D. there is no cytosine in DNA.
    E. there is no thymine in RNA.

  28. RNA viruses have very small genomes because

    A. they could not package a larger genome into the phage head.
    B. the RNA molecule is too fragile and would break if it were any longer.
    C. RNA can not form a helical structure like DNA.
    D. RNA polymerases make too many errors to replicate a large genome faithfully.
    E. it's not possible to copy a RNA molecule, only DNA can be replicated.

  29. How does the structure of DNA provide a framework for replication?

    A. Each polynucleotide strand is a complementary copy of the other.
    B. Each polynucleotide strand is an exact copy of the other.
    C. At no time do the two polynucleotide strands separate from each other.
    D. The DNA is lumpy in some areas in which two purines are paired.
    E. none of these choices are true

  30. How many hydrogen bonds would form between the DNA sequence ATTG and its complement on the other strand in a double helix?

    A. 4 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 E. 9

  31. DNA replication is

    A. conservative. B. semiconservative.
    C. dispersive. D. continuous
    E. discontinuous

  32. Transfer RNA is important in translation because

    A. it can bind to promoter DNA.
    B. it can bind both amino acids and RNA.
    C. ribosomes can attach to tRNA and initiate translation.
    D. it is found in the nucleus.
    E. none of these choices are true

  33. The term colinearity, when related to genes and proteins, refers to the fact

    A. that DNA and protein are both linear.
    B. of the triplet nature of the genetic code.
    C. that one gene encodes a single enzymatic activity.
    D. that the linear array of bases in DNA determines the three-dimensional structure of a protein.
    E. that the linear array of bases in DNA determines the linear array of amino acids in a protein.

  34. The enzyme primarily responsible for the synthesis of nascent DNA is

    A. RNA polymerase. B. DNA gyrase
    C. DNA ligase. D. DNase.
    E. DNA polymerase.

  35. Transcription of DNA into mRNA is catalyzed by

    A. RNA polymerase. B. DNA polymerase.
    C. RNase. D. ribonuclease.
    E. ribosomes

  36. A DNA copy of a sequence of DNA is synthesized during

    A. replication. B. transcription. C. translation.
    D. transformation. E. none of these choices are true

  37. DNA replication along the 3' --> 5' template strand

    A. is continuous. B. is discontinuous.
    C. cannot occur. D. forms a lagging strand.
    E. must loop the DNA

  38. Sunlight can damage DNA by

    A. forming pyrimidine dimers.
    B. making apyrimidinic sites.
    C. causing spontaneous deamination of bases.
    D. intercalation of water molecules.
    E. alkylating DNA.

  39. What type of mutation is AGAGCCGAGGA --> AGAGCGAGGA?

    A. deletion B. inversion C. frameshift
    D. insertion E. point mutation

  40. The first amino acid incorporated into eukaryotic proteins is

    A. formylcysteine. B. cysteine. C. formyltryptophan D. formylmethionine.
    E. methionine.

  41. Posttranscriptional modification of eukaryotic mRNAs includes a

    A. 5' cap. B. 3' cap. C. poly-dT tail.
    D. two of these choices E. all of these choices

  42. Introns are

    A. prokaryotic transposable elements.
    B. eukaryotic transposable elements.
    C. sequences that are spliced out of prokaryotic RNAs.
    D. sequences that are spliced out of eukaryotic RNAs.
    E. none of these choices are true

  43. The eukaryotic equivalent of the prokaryotic Pribnow box is the

    A. Goldstein-Hogness (TATA) box. B. CAAT box. C. enhancer.
    D. intron. E. None; the Pribnow box is eukaryotic.

  44. The fact that a given amino acid may have more than one codon is called

    A. degeneracy. B. ambiguity.
    C. redundancy. D. family mixing.
    E. wobble.

  45. When Khorana translated a repeating dinucleotide (such as UCUCUC...) he concluded that the genetic code must have an odd number of bases because he got

    A. only one homopolypeptide.
    B. two homopolypeptides.
    C. three different homopolypeptides.
    D. only one peptide composed of two alternating amino acids (poly ser-leu, for instance).
    E. only one peptide composed of three alternating amino acids (poly ser-leu-arg, for instance).

  46. Beadle and Tatum concluded from their studies of Neurospora mutants that

    A. DNA was the genetic material.
    B. mutations are caused by altering individual amino acids.
    C. the DNA sequence was colinear with the protein sequence.
    D. each gene produces one enzyme.
    E. none of these choices are true

  47. In general, DNA methylation in eukaryotes

    A. can be measured using isoschizomers.
    B. is greater in dormant genes. C. is greater in active genes.
    D. is unrelated to gene transcription. E. two of these choices

  48. The first step in preparing a cDNA genomic library is

    A. synthesis of cDNA from an mRNA transcript.
    B. synthesis of cDNA from genomic DNA.
    C. polyadenylation of the mRNA transcript.
    D. synthesis of mRNA from cDNA. E. none of the other choices is correct

  49. When several loci control a phenotype and each locus has an allele that contributes an equivalent small increment to that phenotype, we call the inheritance pattern

    A. dominant. B. recessive. C. epistatic. D. sex-linked. E. additive.

  50. Oncogenes have been found to have which of the following functions?

    A. transcription activation B. growth factor receptor C. tumor suppression
    D. two of these choices E. all of these choices

  51. A mutation in which one cell type follows the developmental pathway of another cell type is called a

    A. segmentation mutation. B. helix-turn-helix motif.
    C. homeotic mutation. D. zinc finger. E. fate-map mutation.

  52. Transcription factors recognize particular DNA sequences by binding to DNA

    A. at methyl groups B. covalently C. in the major groove
    D. on the phosphate backbone E. none of these

  53. Regions of eukaryotic DNA free of nucleosomes are called

    A. polytene. B. nonhistone proteins. C. nuclease-hypersensitive sites.
    D. scaffolding. E. satellite DNA.

  54. For the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to hold exactly, the population must

    A. have random genetic drift. B. be naturally selected.
    C. be artificially selected. D. all of these E. none of these

  55. Transcribed DNA generally is

    A. euchromatic. B. heterochromatic. C. centromeric.
    D. constitutive. E. two of these

  56. According to cot-curve analysis of mouse DNA, satellite DNA comprises what percentage of the total DNA?

    A. 1 B. 10 C. 15 D. 70 E. 95

  57. In rye grass, seed color is a polygenic trait (additive model). If true-breeding red and white varieties are crossed, the F1 are intermediate in color. If the F1 are self-fertilized, about 1 in 64 have white seeds. How many loci are segregating color alleles?

    A. one B. two C. three D. four E. greater than four

  58. Maternal effect depends on the

    A. genotype of the maternal parent.
    B. phenotype of the maternal parent.
    C. maternal inheritance of organelle genes.
    D. All of these choices are true. E. None of these choices are true.

  59. Genetic studies on chloroplast DNA have led to the hypothesis that eukaryotic cell organelles

    A. are also found in prokaryotes. B. have prokaryotic origins.
    C. are ancestors of present-day prokaryotes.
    D. developed as a result of a chromosomal mutation.
    E. All of these choices are true.

  60. The Cystic Fibrosis gene was cloned by

    A. purifying the mRNA and using it as a probe
    B. the use of antibodies to the protein to screen an expression library
    C. by using the cloned mouse version of the gene as a probe
    D. by determining its location on the chromosome relative to other cloned fragments of the human genome
    E. by subtractive hybridization with a pancreas cDNA library

  61. Histones interact with DNA to form

    A. scaffold. B. nucleosomes. C. nonhistone protein. D. Balbiani rings. E. polytene chromosomes.

  62. Xeroderma pigmentosum is a disease that inactivates

    A. the X-ray repair system. B. the UV repair system.
    C. the DNA replication system. D. two of these choices
    E. all of these choices

  63. If the template strand for transcription (the DNA strand that the RNA polymerase binds to and "reads") has the sequence 5'-AGGCTTCGCTAAAG-3' then the RNA transcript would have the following sequence.

    A. 5'-TCCGAAGCGATTTC-3' B. 5'-CTTTAGCGAAGCCT-3'
    C. 5'-CUUUAGCGAAGCCU-3' D. 5'-UCCGAAGCGAUUUC-3'
    E. None of the above

  64. An operon is a group of structural genes that

    A. encode separate parts of a single protein.
    B. only function in the presence of an inducer substance.
    C. are under the control of a single promoter.
    D. function only in the presence of CAP. E. none of these choices are true

  65. An operator constitutive mutation in the lactose operon would result in

    A. continuous metabolism of glucose in the cell.
    B. continuous expression of the lacI gene product.
    C. continuous expression of the lac structural genes.
    D. accumulation of lactose within the cell. E. none of these choices are true

  66. A mutation in the lac repressor protein that decreases the affinity of the repressor for the inducer would be

    A. dominant in cis only. B. dominant in trans only.
    C. dominant in cis and in trans. D. recessive to wild-type in cis and in trans.
    E. none of these choices are true

  67. The catabolite activator protein (CAP) of E. coli

    A. induces cAMP formation. B. inhibits cAMP formation.
    C. with cAMP, enhances lac-operon transcription.
    D. with cAMP, enhances glu-operon transcription.
    E. two of these choices

  68. When bacteriophage lambda is in the lysogenic state,

    A. the host cell lyses to release progeny phage at the end of the infection cycle.
    B. the cro protein is expressed. C. only the N gene product is expressed.
    D. the phage integrates into the bacterial chromosome to form a prophage.
    E. none of these choices are true

  69. A zinc finger is an example of

    A. a helix-turn-helix motif. B. a homeo domain. C. a DNA-binding protein.
    D. a copper fist. E. two of these choices

  70. Telomeres contain about how many copies of a length of DNA of approximately how many base pairs?

    A. 1 copy; 5-8 bp B. 500 copies; 5-8 bp C. 50,000 copies; 5-8 bp
    D. 500 copies; 500 bp E. 50,000 copies; 500 bp

  71. A conserved DNA-binding region in many developmentally important transcription factors is called the

    A. homeo box. B. homeotic domain. C. homeo mutation.
    D. fushi tarazu. E. helix-turn-helix motif.

  72. Enhancer sequences

    A. are always found immediately upstream of a promoter.
    B. enhance transcription even when located far away from a promoter.
    C. encode enhancer-binding proteins that bind to and stimulate transcription at susceptible promoters.
    D. are highly conserved in nature. E. none of the other choices is correct

  73. When DNA is packed with all of the histones it forms a fiber that is how wide?

    A. 11 nm B. 30 nm C. 300 nm D. 700 nm E. 2 mm

  74. The time course of most tumors suggests that

    A. cancer is caused by viruses B. multiple mutations are required
    C. all tumors are caused by the same mutations
    D. most cancers are heritable E. all of these choices

  75. A proto-oncogene can be activated by

    A. mutation. B. translocation. C. amplification. D. two of these E. all of these

  76. The oncogene of Rous sarcoma virus, src, is

    A. a tyrosine kinase. B. a protein-binding protein C. a DNA-binding protein.
    D. an RNA-binding protein. E. a growth factor.

  77. The retinoblastoma gene (an anti-oncogene) codes for a protein that

    A. induces retinal tumors. B. suppresses retinal tumors. C. suppresses the Wilm's tumor gene.
    D. induces the Wilm's tumor gene. E. suppresses molecular imprinting.

  78. Two squash with disk shaped fruit are crossed and over a period of a year they produce 480 offspring with the following phenotypes; 270 disk shaped, 178 sphere shaped, 32 long fruits. What is your hypothesis about the genetic control of fruit shape in these squash?

    A. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a dominant and recessive allele
    B. one loci with three alleles with dominance (first allele>second allele>third allele)
    C. one loci with two alleles and the alleles are co-dominant
    D. two loci with two co-dominant alleles each
    E. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a dominant and recessive allele, and there are epistatic interactions between the two loci.

  79. Erminette fowls have mostly light-colored feathers with an occasional black one, giving a flecked appearance. A cross of two erminettes produced a total of 48 progeny, consisting of 22 erminettes, 14 blacks, and 12 pure whites. What is your hypothesis about the genetic control of feather color in these fowls?

    A. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a dominant and recessive allele
    B. one loci with three alleles with dominance (first allele>second allele>third allele)
    C. one loci with two alleles and the alleles are co-dominant
    D. two loci with two co-dominant alleles each
    E. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a dominant and recessive allele, and there are epistatic interactions between the two loci

  80. If two of the black fowls from the question above were crossed you would expect to get which of the results listed below?

    A. all black B. 1/2 black; 1/2 white C. 3/4 erminettes; 1/4 black
    D. 9/16 erminettes, 3/16 white, 4/16 black
    E. They do not all have the same genotype so the expected progeny can not be determined.

  81. In a cross of a true-breeding rabbit with the Himalayan coat color with a hybrid rabbit with a normal coat color half of the progeny have normal coats and half have coats with the Chinchilla coat color. What is your hypothesis about the genetic control of coat color in these rabbits?

    A. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a dominant and recessive allele
    B. one loci with three alleles with dominance (first allele>second allele>third allele)
    C. one loci with two alleles and the alleles are co-dominant
    D. two loci with two co-dominant alleles each
    E. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a dominant and recessive allele, and there are epistatic interactions between the two loci

  82. A violet-flowered, long-stemmed hybrid plant was crossed with a true-breeding white-flowered, short-stemmed plant with the following offspring: 47 violet, long-stemmed plants, 40 white, long-stemmed plants, 38 violet, short-stemmed plants, 41 white, short-stemmed plants. What is your hypothesis about the genetic control of flower color and stem length in these rabbits

    A. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a dominant and recessive allele
    B. one loci with three alleles with dominance (first allele>second allele>third allele)
    C. one loci with two alleles and the alleles are co-dominant
    D. two loci with two co-dominant alleles each
    E. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a dominant and recessive allele, and there are epistatic interactions between the two loci

  83. If two of the violet, short-stemmed plant from the question above were crossed you would expect to get which of the results listed below?

    A. all violet, short-stemmed B. 1/2 violet, short-stemmed; 1/2 white, short-stemmed
    C. 3/4 violet, short-stemmed; 1/4 white, short-stemmed
    D. 9/16 violet, long-stemmed plants, 3/16 white, long-stemmed plants, 3/16 violet, short-stemmed plants, 1/16 white, short-stemmed plants
    E. They do not all have the same genotype so the expected progeny can not be determined.

  84. In Drosophila, there are four strains differing in eye color: wild-type, orange-1, orange-2, and pink. The following matings involving true breeding individuals were performed.

    Cross F1
    wild-type x orange-1 all wild-type
    wild-type x orange-2 all wild-type
    orange-1 x orange-2 all wild-type
    orange-2 x pink all orange-2
    F1 (orange-1 x 1/4 orange-2: 1/4 pink: 1/4 orange-1:
    orange-2) x pink 1/4 wild-type

    What F2 ratio do you expect if the wild type F1 progeny from orange-1 x orange-2 are selfed?

    A. all wild type B. 1/2 orange-1; 1/2 orange-2 C. 3/4 wild type; 1/4 pink
    D. 9/16 wild type, 3/16 orange-1, 3/16 orange-2, 1/16 pink
    E. They do not all have the same genotype so the expected progeny can not be determined.

    Trihybrid F1 corn plants carrying recessive mutations v, b, and l are testcrossed. The F2 offspring were counted and gave the following results

    Phenotype

    Number

    v+b+l

    297

    v+bl+

    64

    v+bl

    120

    v+b+l+

    22

    v b l

    18

    vb+l+

    116

    v b+ l

    70

    vbl+

    293

  85. Which gene is in the middle on the chromosome?

    A. v B. b C. l D. none, only two linked E. none, all unlinked

  86. What is your best estimate of the v-b distance, in map units?

    A. 17.4 B. 23.6 C. 27.6 D. 37 E. 45

  87. What is your best estimate of the b-l distance, in map units?

    A. 17.4 B. 23.6 C. 27.6 D. 37 E. 45

  88. What is your best estimate of the v-l distance, in map units?

    A. 17.4 B. 23.6 C. 27.6 D. 37 E. 45

  89. What is the coefficient of coincidence?

    A. 0 B. 0.5 C. .67 D. 0.83 E. 1

    (1) + + m m + + m m (6) + + + + m m m m
    (2) + + + + m m m m (7) m m + + + + m m
    (3) m m + + + + m m (8) + + + + m m m m
    (4) m m m m + + + + (9) m m m m + + + +
    (5) m m + + + + m m (10) m m m m + + + +

  90. A haploid Neurospora strain requiring methionine (m) is crossed to the wild-type. Meiosis occurs, and 10 asci are dissected with the spore orders shown above. What is the map distance of the methionine locus to its centromere in map units?

    A. 10 map units B. 20 map units C. 40 map units
    D. The locus is unlinked. E. none of these choices

    Human chromosome

    Cell line

    1

    2

    3

    4

    5

    6

    7

    8-22

    A

    +

    +

    +

    +

    -

    -

    -

    -

    B

    +

    +

    -

    -

    +

    +

    -

    -

    C

    +

    -

    +

    -

    +

    -

    +

    -

  91. Each human-mouse hybrid cell line (A, B, C) shown above has a full complement of mouse chromosomes and the human chromosomes shown with a +. The human enzyme alpha is found only in cell line C. Which chromosome is it on?

    A. one B. four C. six D. seven E. 8-22

  92. The human enzyme beta is found in all three cell lines. Which chromosome is it on?

    A. one B. four C. six D. seven E. 8-22

  93. The human enzyme gamma is not found in any cell line. Which chromosome is it on?

    A. one B. four C. six D. seven E. 8-22

  94. An Hfr strain conjugates with an F- strain. In subsamples, mating was interrupted every minute. The numbers below refer to the time, in minutes, when the Hfr allele first entered the F-. What is the order of loci on the chromosome?

    Hfr

    Hfr

    Time (minutes)

    met+

    met-

    64

    his+

    his-

    45

    gal+

    gal-

    17

    thy+

    thy-

    61

    A. gal his thy met B. gal thy met his C. gal thy his met
    D. his met gal thy E. two of these choices
  95. In E. coli, four Hfr strains donate the following genetic markers shown in the order donated

    strain 1: Q W D M T
    strain 2: A X P T M
    strain 3: B N C A X
    strain 4: B Q W D M

  96. All of these Hfr strains are derived from the same F+ strain. What is the order of these markers on the circular chromosome of the original F+?

    A. QWDMTPXACNBQ B. AXPDMTWQBNCA C. BNCATPXMDWQB
    D. QWDMTBNCAXPT E. can't be determined

    The following map shows four deletions (1 to 4) involving the rIIA cistron of phage T4:
    1 ___

    2 _____

    3 ________
    4 ________
    Five point mutations (a to e) in RIIA are tested against these four deletion mutants for their ability (+) or inability (-) to give r+ recombinants, with the following results:

    a

    b

    c

    d

    e

    1

    +

    +

    -

    +

    +

    2

    +

    +

    -

    -

    -

    3

    -

    -

    +

    -

    +

    4

    +

    -

    +

    +

    +

  97. What is the order of the point mutants?

    A. a-b-c-d-e B. c-e-d-a-b C. c-d-e-b-a
    D. d-c-e-b-a E. none of these

  98. Figure 12.4 is the electrophoretic gel of DNA recovered in dideoxy sequencing reaction mixtures. What is the sequence of this newly synthesized DNA?

    A. 5'-GGCTAA-3' B. 3'-GGCTAA-5'
    C. 5'-CCGATT-3' D. 3'-CCGATT-5' E. None of these

  99. If the template strand for transcription (the DNA strand that the RNA polymerase binds to and "reads") has the sequence 5'-AGGCTTCGCTAAAG-3' then the RNA transcript would have the following sequence.

    A. 5'-TCCGAAGCGATTTC-3' B. 5'-CTTTAGCGAAGCCT-3'
    C. 5'-CUUUAGCGAAGCCU-3' D. 5'-UCCGAAGCGAUUUC-3'
    E. None of the above

  100. What is the most likely mode of inheritance of the trait shown in the above pedigree?

    A. autosomal dominant B. autosomal recessive C. X-linked dominant
    D. X-linked recessive E. Y-linked

  101. Using the pedigree drawn below, determine which allele of the ABO system is linked to the gene responsible for nail-patella syndrome and the approximate distance between the two loci.

    A. B, 6.25 B. B, 12.5 C. A, 6.25 D. A, 12.5 E. O, 6.25

  102. Three genotypes occur in the following numbers: AA = 25, Aa = 20, aa = 55. Is this population in Hardy-Weinberg proportions (critical chi-square = 3.841)?

    A. Yes, chi-square < 25. B. No, chi-square < 25.
    C. Yes, chi-square > 25. D. No, chi-square > 25.
    E. cannot determine

  103. Approximately one child in 10,000 is born with the recessive trait OllieNorth syndrome. About what percentage of the population is made up of carriers?

    A. less than 1% B. 1.4% C. 2.0% D. 2.7% E. 5.0%


Bell Schierenbeck CSU Chico Library
This document is copyright of Jeff Bell
Last Update: Tuesday, December 1, 1998