- A tall parent and a short parent produce intermediate
F1 offspring that, when self-fertilized, produce a range
of offspring heights, some taller than the tall P1 and
some shorter than the short P1. Which set of parental
genotypes could account for these data?
A. AABBCC x aabbcc B. AABB x aabb
C. AABBcc x aabbCC D. AA x aa E. AA x bb
- Which of the following is a characteristic of a
recessive human disease?
A. If both parents are affected, all of the offspring
will have the disease.
B. If one parent is affected, half of the offspring will
have the disease.
C. Two unaffected parents can have affected
offspring.
D. If one parent is affected, all of the offspring will
have the disease.
E. none of these
- In an individual heterozygous for a reciprocal
translocation
A. pseudodominance occurs B. crossovers are
suppressed.
C. semisterility occurs. D. dicentric chromosomes
occur.
E. none of these choices
- In humans, type AB blood is an example of
A. pleiotropy. B. codominance. C. incomplete
dominance.
D. incomplete penetrance. E. None of these choices
- Epistasis is different from multiple alleles at a
loci, in that epistasis
A. shows a 9:3:3:1 ratio in progeny of a dihybrid
cross.
B. is characterized by heterozygosity at two or more
loci.
C. is the phenotypic result of having different alleles
at one locus.
D. results when two or more genes interact to determine a
phenotype.
E. None of these choices
- What is the sex of a human individual with the XXX
karyotype?
A. male B. female C. metamale D. supermale E. intersex
- If an individual was producing gametes with a
dicentric chromosome you would suspect
A. a deletion. B. a duplication. C. an inversion.
D. a translocation E. a trisomic chromosome
- In a particular cross, two pigmented guinea pigs
produce offspring in a ratio of 13 pigmented to three
white. Which genotype could have a white phenotype?
A. AABB B. Aabb C. AaBb D. AaBB E. aabb
- The end result of meiosis is the
A. separation of homologous chromosomes into 2
daughter cells.
B. formation of 2 daughter cells, each containing the
diploid chromosome number.
C. separation of the duplicated chromosomes into 4
daughter cells.
D. formation of 4 daughter cells, each containing the
haploid chromosome number.
E. None of these choices
- Two genes will not exhibit linkage in genetic crosses
if
A. they are near each other on the same
chromosome.
B. the rate of recombination between them is less than
0.5.
C. they are on different chromosomes.
D. All of these choices are true. E. None of these
choices
- Assuming complete dominance, what is the phenotypic
ratio of the offspring of the cross AaBb x aabb?
A. 1:1 B. 3:1 C. 1:1:1:1 D. 9:3:3:1 E. 1:2:1
- The phenomena where not all individuals with the
genotype show the phenotype to the same degree is
referred to as
A. expressivity. B. dominance. C. penetrance. D.
epistasis.
E. None of these choices
- Human twin studies may be done to eliminate
A. environmental variance. B. additive genetic
variance.
C. dominance variance. D. epistatic variance. E. total
genetic variance.
- How many different kinds of gametes can be produced
by an individual with the genotype AABbCCddEeFf?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16 E. 64
- In wheat, seed color is a polygenic trait (additive
model). If true-breeding red and white varieties are
crossed, the F1 are intermediate in color. If the F1 are
self-fertilized, about 1 in 256 have white seeds. How
many loci are segregating color alleles?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. greater than four
- Interference between recombinational events results
in
A. a decrease in the number of crossovers occurring
between genes on different chromosomes.
B. a decrease in the frequency of double crossovers
occurring between linked genes.
C. an increase in the frequency of crossovers between
linked genes.
D. an increase in the frequency of double crossovers
occurring between genes on different chromosomes. E. None
of these choices
- Human chromosome mapping by somatic cell
hybridization exploits the fact that in fusion's between
mouse and human cells
A. genes found on the mouse chromosomes are not
expressed.
B. human genes are not expressed.
C. the nuclei of the fused cells remain separate
D. all but a few human chromosomes are lost from the
hybrid cells.
E. None of these choices are true
- Bacterial cells that can transfer chromosomal genes
during conjugation are
A. Hfr. B. F+. C. F-.
D. All of these choices are true. E. None of these
choices are true
- Sexduction involves transfer of genetic material
between bacteria by way of
A. a phage. B. an Hfr donor strain. C. an F+ donor
strain.
D. an F' donor strain. E. all of these choices
- The factor that converts an F- cell to an F+ cell is
a(n)
A. phage. B. plasmid. C. transposon. D. intron. E.
virus
- Hfr bacterial strains
A. transfer host chromosomal genes at a high
frequency.
B. transfer fertility to other bacteria at a high
rate
C. are converted to F- when an F plasmid inserts in the
host genome.
D. cannot conjugate with other strains.
E. are used to produce merodiploid strains of E. coli
- Three genotypes occur in the following numbers: AA =
25, Aa = 20, aa = 55. Therefore, p = f(A) is
A. 0.25. B. 0.35. C. 0.45. D. 0.50. E. 0.55.
- In a population in Hardy-Weinberg proportions, if p =
f(A1) and z = f(A26), the proportion of A1/A26 genotypes
is
A. pz. B. 2pz. C. p2. D. z2. E. p2 + z2.
- In a large population, if the initial frequencies of
two alleles at a locus are 0.2 and 0.8, respectively,
after 10 generations the frequency of heterozygotes will
be
A. 0.16 B. 0.20 C. 0.32 D. 0.50 E. 0.80
- The transforming substance of Streptococcus
pneumoniae was shown by Avery et al. to be
A. protein. B. carbohydrate. C. lipid. D. DNA. E. RNA.
- Experiments performed by Hershey and Chase determined
the true nature of genetic material by using
bacteriophage T2 and showing that
A. radioactive DNA entered the bacterial cells.
B. radioactive protein entered the bacterial cells.
C. radioactive DNA did not enter the cells and could be
detected in the supernatant left in the blender
D. DNA and protein both incorporated radioactivity and
entered the cells.
E. none of these choices are true
- Antiparallel means that
A. DNA strands run in opposite directions.
B. DNA strands are not straight.
C. DNA strands are not parallel.
D. there is no cytosine in DNA.
E. there is no thymine in RNA.
- RNA viruses have very small genomes because
A. they could not package a larger genome into the
phage head.
B. the RNA molecule is too fragile and would break if it
were any longer.
C. RNA can not form a helical structure like DNA.
D. RNA polymerases make too many errors to replicate a
large genome faithfully.
E. it's not possible to copy a RNA molecule, only DNA can
be replicated.
- How does the structure of DNA provide a framework for
replication?
A. Each polynucleotide strand is a complementary copy
of the other.
B. Each polynucleotide strand is an exact copy of the
other.
C. At no time do the two polynucleotide strands separate
from each other.
D. The DNA is lumpy in some areas in which two purines
are paired.
E. none of these choices are true
- How many hydrogen bonds would form between the DNA
sequence ATTG and its complement on the other strand in a
double helix?
A. 4 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 E. 9
- DNA replication is
A. conservative. B. semiconservative.
C. dispersive. D. continuous
E. discontinuous
- Transfer RNA is important in translation because
A. it can bind to promoter DNA.
B. it can bind both amino acids and RNA.
C. ribosomes can attach to tRNA and initiate
translation.
D. it is found in the nucleus.
E. none of these choices are true
- The term colinearity, when related to genes and
proteins, refers to the fact
A. that DNA and protein are both linear.
B. of the triplet nature of the genetic code.
C. that one gene encodes a single enzymatic activity.
D. that the linear array of bases in DNA determines the
three-dimensional structure of a protein.
E. that the linear array of bases in DNA determines the
linear array of amino acids in a protein.
- The enzyme primarily responsible for the synthesis of
nascent DNA is
A. RNA polymerase. B. DNA gyrase
C. DNA ligase. D. DNase.
E. DNA polymerase.
- Transcription of DNA into mRNA is catalyzed by
A. RNA polymerase. B. DNA polymerase.
C. RNase. D. ribonuclease.
E. ribosomes
- A DNA copy of a sequence of DNA is synthesized during
A. replication. B. transcription. C. translation.
D. transformation. E. none of these choices are true
- DNA replication along the 3' --> 5' template
strand
A. is continuous. B. is discontinuous.
C. cannot occur. D. forms a lagging strand.
E. must loop the DNA
- Sunlight can damage DNA by
A. forming pyrimidine dimers.
B. making apyrimidinic sites.
C. causing spontaneous deamination of bases.
D. intercalation of water molecules.
E. alkylating DNA.
- What type of mutation is AGAGCCGAGGA -->
AGAGCGAGGA?
A. deletion B. inversion C. frameshift
D. insertion E. point mutation
- The first amino acid incorporated into eukaryotic
proteins is
A. formylcysteine. B. cysteine. C. formyltryptophan D.
formylmethionine.
E. methionine.
- Posttranscriptional modification of eukaryotic mRNAs
includes a
A. 5' cap. B. 3' cap. C. poly-dT tail.
D. two of these choices E. all of these choices
- Introns are
A. prokaryotic transposable elements.
B. eukaryotic transposable elements.
C. sequences that are spliced out of prokaryotic
RNAs.
D. sequences that are spliced out of eukaryotic RNAs.
E. none of these choices are true
- The eukaryotic equivalent of the prokaryotic Pribnow
box is the
A. Goldstein-Hogness (TATA) box. B. CAAT box. C.
enhancer.
D. intron. E. None; the Pribnow box is eukaryotic.
- The fact that a given amino acid may have more than
one codon is called
A. degeneracy. B. ambiguity.
C. redundancy. D. family mixing.
E. wobble.
- When Khorana translated a repeating dinucleotide
(such as UCUCUC...) he concluded that the genetic code
must have an odd number of bases because he got
A. only one homopolypeptide.
B. two homopolypeptides.
C. three different homopolypeptides.
D. only one peptide composed of two alternating amino
acids (poly ser-leu, for instance).
E. only one peptide composed of three alternating amino
acids (poly ser-leu-arg, for instance).
- Beadle and Tatum concluded from their studies of
Neurospora mutants that
A. DNA was the genetic material.
B. mutations are caused by altering individual amino
acids.
C. the DNA sequence was colinear with the protein
sequence.
D. each gene produces one enzyme.
E. none of these choices are true
- In general, DNA methylation in eukaryotes
A. can be measured using isoschizomers.
B. is greater in dormant genes. C. is greater in active
genes.
D. is unrelated to gene transcription. E. two of these
choices
- The first step in preparing a cDNA genomic library is
A. synthesis of cDNA from an mRNA transcript.
B. synthesis of cDNA from genomic DNA.
C. polyadenylation of the mRNA transcript.
D. synthesis of mRNA from cDNA. E. none of the other
choices is correct
- When several loci control a phenotype and each locus
has an allele that contributes an equivalent small
increment to that phenotype, we call the inheritance
pattern
A. dominant. B. recessive. C. epistatic. D.
sex-linked. E. additive.
- Oncogenes have been found to have which of the
following functions?
A. transcription activation B. growth factor receptor
C. tumor suppression
D. two of these choices E. all of these choices
- A mutation in which one cell type follows the
developmental pathway of another cell type is called a
A. segmentation mutation. B. helix-turn-helix
motif.
C. homeotic mutation. D. zinc finger. E. fate-map
mutation.
- Transcription factors recognize particular DNA
sequences by binding to DNA
A. at methyl groups B. covalently C. in the major
groove
D. on the phosphate backbone E. none of these
- Regions of eukaryotic DNA free of nucleosomes are
called
A. polytene. B. nonhistone proteins. C.
nuclease-hypersensitive sites.
D. scaffolding. E. satellite DNA.
- For the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium to hold exactly,
the population must
A. have random genetic drift. B. be naturally
selected.
C. be artificially selected. D. all of these E. none of
these
- Transcribed DNA generally is
A. euchromatic. B. heterochromatic. C.
centromeric.
D. constitutive. E. two of these
- According to cot-curve analysis of mouse DNA,
satellite DNA comprises what percentage of the total DNA?
A. 1 B. 10 C. 15 D. 70 E. 95
- In rye grass, seed color is a polygenic trait
(additive model). If true-breeding red and white
varieties are crossed, the F1 are intermediate in color.
If the F1 are self-fertilized, about 1 in 64 have white
seeds. How many loci are segregating color alleles?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. greater than four
- Maternal effect depends on the
A. genotype of the maternal parent.
B. phenotype of the maternal parent.
C. maternal inheritance of organelle genes.
D. All of these choices are true. E. None of these
choices are true.
- Genetic studies on chloroplast DNA have led to the
hypothesis that eukaryotic cell organelles
A. are also found in prokaryotes. B. have prokaryotic
origins.
C. are ancestors of present-day prokaryotes.
D. developed as a result of a chromosomal mutation.
E. All of these choices are true.
- The Cystic Fibrosis gene was cloned by
A. purifying the mRNA and using it as a probe
B. the use of antibodies to the protein to screen an
expression library
C. by using the cloned mouse version of the gene as a
probe
D. by determining its location on the chromosome relative
to other cloned fragments of the human genome
E. by subtractive hybridization with a pancreas cDNA
library
- Histones interact with DNA to form
A. scaffold. B. nucleosomes. C. nonhistone protein. D.
Balbiani rings. E. polytene chromosomes.
- Xeroderma pigmentosum is a disease that inactivates
A. the X-ray repair system. B. the UV repair
system.
C. the DNA replication system. D. two of these
choices
E. all of these choices
- If the template strand for transcription (the DNA
strand that the RNA polymerase binds to and "reads") has
the sequence 5'-AGGCTTCGCTAAAG-3' then the RNA transcript
would have the following sequence.
A. 5'-TCCGAAGCGATTTC-3' B. 5'-CTTTAGCGAAGCCT-3'
C. 5'-CUUUAGCGAAGCCU-3' D. 5'-UCCGAAGCGAUUUC-3'
E. None of the above
- An operon is a group of structural genes that
A. encode separate parts of a single protein.
B. only function in the presence of an inducer
substance.
C. are under the control of a single promoter.
D. function only in the presence of CAP. E. none of
these choices are true
- An operator constitutive mutation in the lactose
operon would result in
A. continuous metabolism of glucose in the cell.
B. continuous expression of the lacI gene product.
C. continuous expression of the lac structural genes.
D. accumulation of lactose within the cell. E. none
of these choices are true
- A mutation in the lac repressor protein that
decreases the affinity of the repressor for the inducer
would be
A. dominant in cis only. B. dominant in trans
only.
C. dominant in cis and in trans. D. recessive to
wild-type in cis and in trans.
E. none of these choices are true
- The catabolite activator protein (CAP) of E. coli
A. induces cAMP formation. B. inhibits cAMP
formation.
C. with cAMP, enhances lac-operon transcription.
D. with cAMP, enhances glu-operon transcription.
E. two of these choices
- When bacteriophage lambda is in the lysogenic state,
A. the host cell lyses to release progeny phage at the
end of the infection cycle.
B. the cro protein is expressed. C. only the N gene
product is expressed.
D. the phage integrates into the bacterial chromosome to
form a prophage.
E. none of these choices are true
- A zinc finger is an example of
A. a helix-turn-helix motif. B. a homeo domain. C. a
DNA-binding protein.
D. a copper fist. E. two of these choices
- Telomeres contain about how many copies of a length
of DNA of approximately how many base pairs?
A. 1 copy; 5-8 bp B. 500 copies; 5-8 bp C. 50,000
copies; 5-8 bp
D. 500 copies; 500 bp E. 50,000 copies; 500 bp
- A conserved DNA-binding region in many
developmentally important transcription factors is called
the
A. homeo box. B. homeotic domain. C. homeo
mutation.
D. fushi tarazu. E. helix-turn-helix motif.
- Enhancer sequences
A. are always found immediately upstream of a
promoter.
B. enhance transcription even when located far away from
a promoter.
C. encode enhancer-binding proteins that bind to and
stimulate transcription at susceptible promoters.
D. are highly conserved in nature. E. none of the other
choices is correct
- When DNA is packed with all of the histones it forms
a fiber that is how wide?
A. 11 nm B. 30 nm C. 300 nm D. 700 nm E. 2 mm
- The time course of most tumors suggests that
A. cancer is caused by viruses B. multiple mutations
are required
C. all tumors are caused by the same mutations
D. most cancers are heritable E. all of these choices
- A proto-oncogene can be activated by
A. mutation. B. translocation. C. amplification. D.
two of these E. all of these
- The oncogene of Rous sarcoma virus, src, is
A. a tyrosine kinase. B. a protein-binding protein C.
a DNA-binding protein.
D. an RNA-binding protein. E. a growth factor.
- The retinoblastoma gene (an anti-oncogene) codes for
a protein that
A. induces retinal tumors. B. suppresses retinal
tumors. C. suppresses the Wilm's tumor gene.
D. induces the Wilm's tumor gene. E. suppresses molecular
imprinting.
- Two squash with disk shaped fruit are crossed and
over a period of a year they produce 480 offspring with
the following phenotypes; 270 disk shaped, 178 sphere
shaped, 32 long fruits. What is your hypothesis about the
genetic control of fruit shape in these squash?
A. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a
dominant and recessive allele
B. one loci with three alleles with dominance (first
allele>second allele>third allele)
C. one loci with two alleles and the alleles are
co-dominant
D. two loci with two co-dominant alleles each
E. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a
dominant and recessive allele, and there are epistatic
interactions between the two loci.
- Erminette fowls have mostly light-colored feathers
with an occasional black one, giving a flecked
appearance. A cross of two erminettes produced a total of
48 progeny, consisting of 22 erminettes, 14 blacks, and
12 pure whites. What is your hypothesis about the genetic
control of feather color in these fowls?
A. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a
dominant and recessive allele
B. one loci with three alleles with dominance (first
allele>second allele>third allele)
C. one loci with two alleles and the alleles are
co-dominant
D. two loci with two co-dominant alleles each
E. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a
dominant and recessive allele, and there are epistatic
interactions between the two loci
- If two of the black fowls from the question above
were crossed you would expect to get which of the results
listed below?
A. all black B. 1/2 black; 1/2 white C. 3/4
erminettes; 1/4 black
D. 9/16 erminettes, 3/16 white, 4/16 black
E. They do not all have the same genotype so the expected
progeny can not be determined.
- In a cross of a true-breeding rabbit with the
Himalayan coat color with a hybrid rabbit with a normal
coat color half of the progeny have normal coats and half
have coats with the Chinchilla coat color. What is your
hypothesis about the genetic control of coat color in
these rabbits?
A. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a
dominant and recessive allele
B. one loci with three alleles with dominance (first
allele>second allele>third allele)
C. one loci with two alleles and the alleles are
co-dominant
D. two loci with two co-dominant alleles each
E. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a
dominant and recessive allele, and there are epistatic
interactions between the two loci
- A violet-flowered, long-stemmed hybrid plant was
crossed with a true-breeding white-flowered,
short-stemmed plant with the following offspring: 47
violet, long-stemmed plants, 40 white, long-stemmed
plants, 38 violet, short-stemmed plants, 41 white,
short-stemmed plants. What is your hypothesis about the
genetic control of flower color and stem length in these
rabbits
A. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a
dominant and recessive allele
B. one loci with three alleles with dominance (first
allele>second allele>third allele)
C. one loci with two alleles and the alleles are
co-dominant
D. two loci with two co-dominant alleles each
E. two loci with two alleles each, both loci have a
dominant and recessive allele, and there are epistatic
interactions between the two loci
- If two of the violet, short-stemmed plant from the
question above were crossed you would expect to get which
of the results listed below?
A. all violet, short-stemmed B. 1/2 violet,
short-stemmed; 1/2 white, short-stemmed
C. 3/4 violet, short-stemmed; 1/4 white,
short-stemmed
D. 9/16 violet, long-stemmed plants, 3/16 white,
long-stemmed plants, 3/16 violet, short-stemmed plants,
1/16 white, short-stemmed plants
E. They do not all have the same genotype so the expected
progeny can not be determined.
- In Drosophila, there are four strains
differing in eye color: wild-type, orange-1, orange-2,
and pink. The following matings involving true breeding
individuals were performed.
Cross F1
wild-type x orange-1 all wild-type
wild-type x orange-2 all wild-type
orange-1 x orange-2 all wild-type
orange-2 x pink all orange-2
F1 (orange-1 x 1/4 orange-2: 1/4 pink: 1/4 orange-1:
orange-2) x pink 1/4 wild-type
What F2 ratio do you expect if the wild type F1
progeny from orange-1 x orange-2 are selfed?
A. all wild type B. 1/2 orange-1; 1/2 orange-2 C. 3/4
wild type; 1/4 pink
D. 9/16 wild type, 3/16 orange-1, 3/16 orange-2, 1/16
pink
E. They do not all have the same genotype so the expected
progeny can not be determined.
Trihybrid F1 corn plants carrying recessive mutations
v, b, and l are testcrossed. The F2 offspring were
counted and gave the following results
Phenotype
|
Number
|
v+b+l
|
297
|
v+bl+
|
64
|
v+bl
|
120
|
v+b+l+
|
22
|
v b l
|
18
|
vb+l+
|
116
|
v b+ l
|
70
|
vbl+
|
293
|
- Which gene is in the middle on the chromosome?
A. v B. b C. l D. none, only two linked E. none, all
unlinked
- What is your best estimate of the v-b distance, in
map units?
A. 17.4 B. 23.6 C. 27.6 D. 37 E. 45
- What is your best estimate of the b-l distance, in
map units?
A. 17.4 B. 23.6 C. 27.6 D. 37 E. 45
- What is your best estimate of the v-l distance, in
map units?
A. 17.4 B. 23.6 C. 27.6 D. 37 E. 45
- What is the coefficient of coincidence?
A. 0 B. 0.5 C. .67 D. 0.83 E. 1
(1) + + m m + + m m (6) + + + + m m m m
(2) + + + + m m m m (7) m m + + + + m m
(3) m m + + + + m m (8) + + + + m m m m
(4) m m m m + + + + (9) m m m m + + + +
(5) m m + + + + m m (10) m m m m + + + +
- A haploid Neurospora strain requiring methionine (m)
is crossed to the wild-type. Meiosis occurs, and 10 asci
are dissected with the spore orders shown above. What is
the map distance of the methionine locus to its
centromere in map units?
A. 10 map units B. 20 map units C. 40 map units
D. The locus is unlinked. E. none of these choices
|
Human chromosome
|
Cell line
|
1
|
2
|
3
|
4
|
5
|
6
|
7
|
8-22
|
A
|
+
|
+
|
+
|
+
|
-
|
-
|
-
|
-
|
B
|
+
|
+
|
-
|
-
|
+
|
+
|
-
|
-
|
C
|
+
|
-
|
+
|
-
|
+
|
-
|
+
|
-
|
- Each human-mouse hybrid cell line (A, B, C) shown
above has a full complement of mouse chromosomes and the
human chromosomes shown with a +. The human enzyme alpha
is found only in cell line C. Which chromosome is it on?
A. one B. four C. six D. seven E. 8-22
- The human enzyme beta is found in all three cell
lines. Which chromosome is it on?
A. one B. four C. six D. seven E. 8-22
- The human enzyme gamma is not found in any cell line.
Which chromosome is it on?
A. one B. four C. six D. seven E. 8-22
- An Hfr strain conjugates with an F- strain. In
subsamples, mating was interrupted every minute. The
numbers below refer to the time, in minutes, when the Hfr
allele first entered the F-. What is the order of loci on
the chromosome?
Hfr
|
Hfr
|
Time (minutes)
|
met+
|
met-
|
64
|
his+
|
his-
|
45
|
gal+
|
gal-
|
17
|
thy+
|
thy-
|
61
|
A. gal his thy met B. gal thy met his C. gal thy his
met
D. his met gal thy E. two of these choices
- In E. coli, four Hfr strains donate the following
genetic markers shown in the order donated
strain 1: Q W D M T
strain 2: A X P T M
strain 3: B N C A X
strain 4: B Q W D M
- All of these Hfr strains are derived from the same
F+ strain. What is the order of these markers
on the circular chromosome of the original F+?
A. QWDMTPXACNBQ B. AXPDMTWQBNCA C. BNCATPXMDWQB
D. QWDMTBNCAXPT E. can't be determined
The following map shows four deletions (1 to 4)
involving the rIIA cistron of phage T4:
1 ___
2 _____
3 ________
4 ________
Five point mutations (a to e) in RIIA are tested against
these four deletion mutants for their ability (+) or
inability (-) to give r+ recombinants, with
the following results:
|
a
|
b
|
c
|
d
|
e
|
1
|
+
|
+
|
-
|
+
|
+
|
2
|
+
|
+
|
-
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- What is the order of the point mutants?
A. a-b-c-d-e B. c-e-d-a-b C. c-d-e-b-a
D. d-c-e-b-a E. none of these
- Figure 12.4 is the electrophoretic gel of DNA
recovered in dideoxy sequencing reaction mixtures. What
is the sequence of this newly synthesized DNA?
A. 5'-GGCTAA-3' B. 3'-GGCTAA-5'
C. 5'-CCGATT-3' D. 3'-CCGATT-5' E. None of these
- If the template strand for transcription (the DNA
strand that the RNA polymerase binds to and "reads") has
the sequence 5'-AGGCTTCGCTAAAG-3' then the RNA transcript
would have the following sequence.
A. 5'-TCCGAAGCGATTTC-3' B. 5'-CTTTAGCGAAGCCT-3'
C. 5'-CUUUAGCGAAGCCU-3' D. 5'-UCCGAAGCGAUUUC-3'
E. None of the above
- What is the most likely mode of inheritance of the
trait shown in the above pedigree?
A. autosomal dominant B. autosomal recessive C.
X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive E. Y-linked
- Using the pedigree drawn below, determine which
allele of the ABO system is linked to the gene
responsible for nail-patella syndrome and the approximate
distance between the two loci.
A. B, 6.25 B. B, 12.5 C. A, 6.25 D. A, 12.5 E. O, 6.25
- Three genotypes occur in the following numbers: AA =
25, Aa = 20, aa = 55. Is this population in
Hardy-Weinberg proportions (critical chi-square = 3.841)?
A. Yes, chi-square < 25. B. No, chi-square <
25.
C. Yes, chi-square > 25. D. No, chi-square >
25.
E. cannot determine
- Approximately one child in 10,000 is born with the
recessive trait OllieNorth syndrome. About what
percentage of the population is made up of carriers?
A. less than 1% B. 1.4% C. 2.0% D. 2.7% E. 5.0%